Ok, this is what I dont get. Every report frames this as “leveraging foreign aid to hurt a political rival.” But isnt it really “leveraging foreign aid to investigate political corruption”, which is in no way inappropriate, let alone a crime? I mean, if something about Biden, et al, is made up, call it out as made up - but no one does, they just brush it off as unsubstantiated and completely irrelevant. Correct or not, it only fosters and reinforces the perceived narrative that “it doesnt matter if Biden is guilty or not, we’re just pissed Trump would dare to ask the question in the first place.”
All the legality concerns in leaked emails (I think coming from the so-called whistleblower) has been that by not disbursing the aid by a certain date would make it illegal to disburse - in other words, the authorization to spend the money would expire. Of course it would’ve been illegal after the authorization expired, and it wasnt disbursed after the authorization expired - the aid was reauthorized and then disbursed, exactly as required. So why is it being framed that it was illegal to not disburse the funds immediately? An authorization is not a requirement, Congress cant force money to be spent.
If you’re going to respond with claims of “ignorance”, “blind loyalty” and “real patriot”, dont bother. This is a serious question in search of a serious answer.